Showing posts with label antiderivative. Show all posts
Showing posts with label antiderivative. Show all posts

Sunday, March 3, 2013

Scribe Post for 3/1/13

Alrighty folks, so that was an action packed Calculus class this past Fri. so I'm gonna dive right in!

Bluester began the period with an exciting look at what's next!  (Un)fortunately, we are almost done with new material, something that should be a relief but also tragic and somewhat nostalgic for us hardcore AP Calculus nerds. All we've got left is Unit 5 and 6 (review) which means a lot more extremely stressful IW's and our last finely crafted opportunity day! In a quick blast to the past, I hope you all got your Unit 4 SuperCorrections in to OB on Friday! This coming Tuesday holds the daunting, equally-weighted follow-up test, which is a chance to shine or realize you never understood the unit! Then the Bluester Cluester showed us a divine sneak peek at the AP Calculus Bible, a sneaky book of everything we need to get a 5!  It had things like:
-Limits
-Asymptotes
-Continuity
-Derivatives as functions
-Concept of derivatives
-Derivative at points
-Slope of curves at a point
-Local linearity
-Applications of derivatives
-Computation of derivatives
-Definite integrals

and LOTS more!!!!!

If you didn't remember a lot of those things, its time to review! Luckily, we are going to have a lot of time to do so and we will be using the wonderful Khan Academy to aid us! Bluester's goal is for everyone to get at least a 3, and it IS possible! Khan Academy is really cool.  We took a quick look at this link: https://www.khanacademy.org/math/calculus/differential-calculus/differential-calculus/e
It was really cool and our answers and progress could all be monitored just as if Bluester was Big Brother! We will be using Khan Academy more so here's the link to the site itself, for your personal gain: https://www.khanacademy.org/math/calculus/
Then, we saw a new sneaky bullet point on the list that was completely NEW!!!
"Antiderivatives by substitution of variables"
<- that's today's class, SURPRISE!
But for now, O'Brien decided to deviously delay the lesson and return to Caroline's scribe post!
We set up a GeoGebra sketch. First, we made slider "a" and set it equal to 1.
Then, we created f(x) = x^2
Finally, we created A, a point (x,0) somewhere on the x-axis.  Then we took the integral, using the GeoGebra integral template to fill in function (f) and boundaries (a, x(A)). At this point, it looked a little like this.

 Finally, we plotted (x(A), b) as point B, and turned on trace for B.  The traced line looked like a function! In fact, it looked a lot like a cubic function, which Becca intuitively pointed out to be the function:

Well well well. That function was actually AN antiderivative of the earlier function f(x).  It wasn't THE antiderivative because antiderivatives can be plentiful due to that constant "C," the tricky reason why many of us screwed up that antiderivative question on the Unit 4 Test.  So yeah, this was pretty cool.

BUT DOES IT WORK WITH OTHER FUNCTIONS????????

We changed f(x) to equal sin(x). With trace, things looked a little like this:


Wowzer! It worked again, somebody correctly answered that the trend we were seeing was the function:
We checked that it was an antiderivative, and it was. Another interesting to note was that in the function, the 1 in the cos(1) really was the variable a, and it was a constant translation for the function as we moved slider "a."
Alrighty, next up on "Guess That Antiderivative Function" was ln(x):


Yippee! Three for three! The antiderivative of ln(x) was the function:
Some interesting things to take into consideration. First, Bluester realized that we needed to change the function to ln(t) instead of ln(x) because x was a variable with different representation.  Second, it worked! The function was an antiderivative function. We continued to prove that the lower limit of the integral (represented with a 1) can be changed with the slider for that variable "a." When changed it always alters the constant of the function.  

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Here OB began to shift directions.  He showed that due to the FUNDAMENTAL THEOREM OF CALCULUS, the following is true:


But how do we know that xln(x) has a derivative of just plain ln(x)?
Well this is how:

In short, OB says "you gotta know your derivatives to do antiderivatives!"
Then OB showed us why there is a constant in the first place! It's just like trying to find integrals when you evaluate a function's antiderivative at each end of an interval and find the difference.  The constant must be subtracted at the end.  Here's a more elaborate explanation from OB:
You can see that -(2ln(2)-2) is the antiderivative evaluated at 2, the lower end of the interval in this case.  That's an exciting new way to find constant C! We moved on.

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The wily Bluester Cluester decided to set up a new learning springboard:
Does it matter whether, in the integral, policy is f(x) or f(u)? dx or du?
YES, it DOES!

We proved this by testing the functionality of three different looking integrals.


You can see that for part a, the antiderivative of the original function was taken to get an answer.  On part b, we used f(u) and du instead of f(x) and dx.  The process was rather similar until we substituted u's back for x's again at the end and found that the answer was different! Finally, on part c, with a little hybrid equation, we had to substitute in x's at an earlier step, but got an entirely new answer.  Overall, Bluester made it clear that IT MATTERS!!!!

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Now lets use the function:
What's the antiderivative? Ummmmm....
While everyone sits in discombobulation, crafty Connor immediately goes to Wolfram Alpha!
The answer is this:
What the heck? Where did THAT come from? Suddenly, Alex Wilder has a moment of true revelation and says, "It all makes sense!"
Taking the derivative of that craziness proves the insanity! See:


Amazing! This leads O'Brien into a frenzy, it is finally time to learn the main idea of the day,  "Integration by Substitution." 


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We started out with the same function tan(x). 
Then we took some new steps:
1. Discovered we could rewrite tan(x) as sin(x)/cos(x).
2. Allowed u (the substitution variable) to equal cos(x).
3. This meant the derivative of u was equal to -sin(x).
4. -sin(x)dx ended up being equal to du, so we can sub in du if we can find one of those.
5. We found one of those by adding a -1/-1 fufoo!
6. We arrived at an easy function to work with, we anti-differentiated.
7. We substituted x back in for u and got the crazy answer that before could only be done on Wolfram!

Here is a picture of our work:


Well that was new and exciting! Bluester wanted us to practice so we decided to tackle a few questions from the IW (that you should all be working on about now). 
First up, was #32!
We started with a really nasty looking thing but using the steps above came up with a much easier function to anti-differentiate. Yay! The work is below:

Next up, we moved on to #34. Again, things looked dire, but we used Bluester's step by step procedure and prevailed handsomely! I popped the question to OB, "Don't things have to just be perfect for this type of thing to work out?" OB responded, "Yes, it's rare that things will be as nice as they are in these book problems, so this technique might have little real world practical use." But let's be real. You're a student in AP Calculus. When will any of this stuff have "real world practical applications?"



Finally, we moved onto the last problem which OB scrawled out just before announcement time!
The work for #45 is below: 





So that was some good practice using the substitution techniques! Keep working on more to master the skill! Also, if you want some help from an MIT professor, check out this youtube video, suggested to watch on your own time due to length: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=W7sNkRpcydk

OB also reminded us of some sneaky tricks to help us on substitution problems like these:
1. Remember Fufoos! They can come in common to make things work nicely!
2. Substitute in du, get rid of all x's in the problem before anti-differentiating.
That's it folks!
Announcements...

Half Period Notes:

We didn't even look at my scribe post :( :( :( :( :( :( :( :( 

OB came in and jumped right into the Unit 4 test answers!  
The first question could just be done with fnInt. 
The second question was a trapezoid rule, a lot of people just took an underestimate, but we learned how to do things the right way. (picture and working to come)
The third question we discussed during SuperCorrection days, it was about the pizza!
The fourth question we needed to find the integral (picture and working to come)
The fifth question was a big old free response.  Part a was found using fnInt, (but don't write that!) Part b was as simple as writing down the definite interval and taking the absolute value of that velocity.  For part c, we needed to add it to the starting position and not use absolute value.  
The sixth question was all about mean value theorem and Riemann sums! You had to be able to interpret the intervals and get average acceleration.  Then, you could use things like symmetric difference quotient to get part c! On part d, you had to be able to interpret the unit of the definite integral.  
The seventh question was a function with different regions.  You also had to be able to interpret the addition of constants to an integral.  
The eight question made us find the derivative/antiderivative to find that g prime and f prime were both ln(x). Then, you had to explain that it was a translation.  
The ninth question made us test whether Riemann sums and Trapezoidal sums were underestimates or overestimates of different function graphs. 
The tenth question was just the antiderivative, but because of chain rule, it was D.  
The eleventh question required absolute value signs around the 3-x in ln(3-x).  Part b was more antiderivatives. 
The twelfth question was again an evaluation of an integral with some anti-differentiation.
The thirteenth question was best found with a graph that allowed us to see the absolute value function shifted over.  Then the definite integral can be taken from that.  
The fourteenth question was a test of our knowledge for properties and rules of integrals (like zero rule!)
The fifteenth question made us solve for k, which could be found by getting an antiderivative and then evaluating. 
The sixteenth question tested our knowledge of slope fields, which was tricky for some, also we had to perform separation of variables and anti-differentiation to solve for f(x)

Nobody had any questions, but you better study up for tomorrow's test!

Then we went over question 48 and question 54 from the IW.  
Pictures will be coming with more details of the work on these problems! (as soon as I can offload them from my phone!)

Cole Ellison is next scribe. (The sneaky boy who was supposed to be scribe a while ago and somehow slinked his way out of the devious duty.)





Wednesday, February 6, 2013

Caroline's Scribe Post for Wednesday, February 6

SCRIBE POST February 6, 2013.

Hello errybody!!

Well, before we got started, Mr OB wasn't here, and then we realized that half the class wasn't here because they have a nordic race. Jealous!! Have fun and gooooood luck!! I hear we are supposed to get like 30 inches of snow on Friday so hoppppefully we have a snow day YAY!! and then we don't have to take the quiz... :)


^^THIS is some good news.! :D
This really isn't photoshopped, we are getting an ULTIMATE BLIZZARD named Nemo. Just keep swimming everybody!

This is how I feel to start off the class:
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Co0tTeuUVhU<---- that is Mr. OB for making me the scribe post.

IW's 4-8 are due on Friday
We have a test on February 14, which is VALENTINE'S day, which is also the day after the Passion Pit/ Matt and Kim concert in Portland which is ALSO the day before the Valentine's day dance and the hockey game and basketball game and February break. Anyways, not to clog your brain up, but we have a test on that day!!

The February break assignment is not mandatory, but if you want to get a five on the test, then you should try to think of it as an assignment. Supercorrections on the test will not be due until after February break.

OKAY. So once OB checked in with Eddie about his IW's, and named me as scribe, and also redeemed the CHILLS b-ball team for being cool again (who knew he had a secret grudge against Connor and Alex this whole time..) we got started on some WORK.

Goals:
Know and LOVE (<3) the FUNdamental Theorem of Calculus! Prepare to be excited.....

Page 297 Quick Quiz for AP Preparation: SEctions 6.1-6.3
1. 
2.


3.
4.

Memorize the list of properties on page 289!

After going on Geogebra and creating a graph of y=x^2, then setting a point A, then using the integral function of Geogebra, we made a conjecture based on our graph and our tracings. Make sure when using the integral function of Geogebra to use this one (there are multiple options after you type in Int):
Okay! So after we played with the graph, which looked like this:....
We found that as we moved point A on the x-axis, and traced the value b, it showed up to be the derivative of the graph which we originally put on there, which was y=x^2. Duncan so cleverly noted this as he told us that the graph of g was 1/3x^3 – 1/3. 

THEREFORE

OUR CONJECTURE:
g(x) is an antiderivative of f.
If that is the case, we should be able to prove that. So here we go! 

PROVE:
g(x) is an antiderivative of f(x).


In this proof, we used some of the rules stated on page 289, which I took a picture of and posted it above. Those rules include the subtraction rule and the mean value theorem. Here is a picture from the book showing the Mean value theorem for integrals:

By using the mean value theorem, we are able to determine that the derivative of g is f.

That is the first fundamental theorem of calculus. And it IS fun!


Fundamental theorem of Calculus, Part 1


Fundamental Theorem of Calculus, Part 2


And with that, the clock struck 12:50, so onto channel 30 we go. Remember, quiz on Friday and IW's 4-8 are due!



For the 40 minute period, OB started talking to us about the quiz which we were able to Supercorrect. He went over part C and D of the problem, and how most people got part C but missed part D which shouldn't have been the case! Because part D is easier than part C.... but then he went over the problems and found some loopholes and realized that part C is really simpler than part D. So don't take it hard on yourselves, this is TOUGH math!..as long as you're not Cole or Crockett!

Anyways, he suggested that we use our snow day to catch up on some work that we may have been slacking in so we be prepared for the quiz on Monday. Remember, Patrick JMT and Kahn Academy are your friends. Mr. OB will also still post IW#10 so try to get a chance to look at that! IW's 9-11 are due on Thursday, February 14. 

Sunday, November 18, 2012

Scribe post 11/16

Well, what an eventful class! We began with the follow-up quiz, bringing to bear our awesome math knowledge and generally outstanding ability to power through several questions based on the Finely Crafted Opportunity Day™. Everyone was energized and dare I say excited to have such a wonderful opportunity to show off our math knowledge like the proverbial peacock. I'm pretty sure that there was loud jubilation and cries of happiness when the test was handed out, and I think several people even jumped up and thanked OB profusely, begging him for another test to take after the first one was done. Sadly, we were limited to only 40 minutes or so of quiz-related bliss before it was back to the grindstone... of, uh, happiness and wonder. The most enjoyable math grindstone...of fun...yeah.

Even as your faithful scribe was scribbling the last few finishing strokes on his quiz, OB was up front with that special gleam in his eye - you know the one. No, not that one. Yeah, that one. The gleam of intrigue, the one that says we were going to learn something new that day - joy oh joy! I hastened quickly to my seat so as to not miss a second of class time. 

We began with a little light math-related humor: 
What is the significance of this equation, you wonder? Why is the limit necessarily six?
Well, let's do some high-level computation. If you cancel the n on the bottom of the fraction with the n on top, the answer obviously becomes . It's so simple! Math really is easy!

When OB cracked this joke, there was an uproar the likes of which have never been heard in the halls of CHRHS before, and likely never will again. All were doubled over in laughter, many struck to the floor, unable to move from the sheer force of the heaving guffaws they produced. There was so much knee-slapping and raucous chortling that the door cracked in five places and several of the support beams in the school's framework vibrated out of place, causing what I suspect to be irreparable damage to the structure. The windows were blown out with the sheer force of the noise, and the lights overhead all exploded in a rain of glass and sparks from the force of the air expelled by a class laughing uproariously in unison. 

 When the fire department had come and gone and a tarp was put over the gaping window holes, we moved onto another warm up problem:



As we collectively bowed our heads and furiously cogitated over the answer, Duncan beat out Cole by fractions of a second and presented the answer . Could this be true? Let's backtrack - if we take the derivative of this function by multiplying by the power of the cubed x and dropping it by one, we get . Success! Does the function go through (2,4)? , it checks out! Once again, Duncan amazed us all with his math expertise. 
Next, OB moved smoothly into an examination of the antiderivative. What is the antiderivative, you say? Try this link! It's from MIT, so you know it's good!

The example we saw in the above picture is a perfect example of an antiderivative problem - a problem involving finding a function by going backwards from its derivative. 
The antiderivative, it should be noted, is not unique until a condition is put on it. In the above problem, the condition of passing through (2,4) was necessary, otherwise there would be a huge set of functions which are the antiderivative of the derivative shown above. In order to answer the above problem and be just as amazingly well-versed as Duncan, simply look at the problem in the sense of "what would we need to do in order to create a derivative with a squared x in it?" We know how to drop multiply and drop powers in order to find a derivative - what function must we be dealing with then? It has to have  in it, so that when the power is multiplied in front and dropped, we wind up with an x squared. 
From here, we just plug in our (2,4) point and find... wait.... But that's not right! There must be something added to this equation we're finding; something that, when derived, drops out. Something like a constant - lets call it c. . Now this is looking better! What, when added to , makes 4? Why,  of course! It seems we found our c! From there, its as simple as putting together the parts and coming up with Duncan's . Wasn't that a blast? A gas? A lark? Well, it was something.

Just to beat the idea into the ground, here's a few more examples. Let's say we have . What is our f(x)? Working backwards, we antiderive (fancy word) that, in order to get sin(x) as a derivative, we must have started with . It only makes sense - since the derivative of cos(x) = -sin(x), this function would give us the desired derivative. But let's step up the math. Take a look at this example:


How did we know that  ? Lets remember our definition of the derivative of inverse tan that we all obviously remembered perfectly on the followup! 
We know that we may well have a constant c which dropped out of the equation when it was derived, as the example before this one showed us. Thus, we are able to find a function to fit our derivative through the wonders of the antiderivative! Now let's do it again!


Do you follow what the example does? We know that when x is on the bottom of a fraction, that it can be written as being raised to a negative exponent. In this case, . Using the knowledge Duncan showed so excellently in our first example, lets examine what our function should look like! To get a final value of , we will need a function which, when its exponent is multiplied out in front and then dropped by one, will end up as our desired derivative.  fits well! Dropping down a negative one will make the derivative positive, and the power will descend to -2! But we know that a negative powers moves our x to the bottom of the fraction, leaving the -1 on top. Don't forget that there might be a constant c! 
Confused? So was I! But then OB in his magnanimity decided to show the problem from another angle so that we might truly master its finer qualities. Let's use the natural log to get the same answer - just from a different angle!

We know that the derivative of  is . In this case, the thing on the bottom of the fraction is an . Thus, we know that it must be what was initially natural log'd. Don't forget that constant c! Work backwards from the f(x) we found above if you're still confused - you'll see that taking its derivative works out. Oh wait... does it? When you bring the power out front, that function becomes . Its derivative wouldn't be what we're looking for, it would be , not  like we wanted! Oh woe and sadness, whatever will we do? We could try dividing by 2...


No, that doesn't work. What if we squared it?


Well isn't that an interesting idea... What would that give us? It seems we would need the product and chain rules to fix this mess! This means . Thus, using the product rule we know that . However, this is as far as we can go. There is only one antiderivative that can be found per equation, they are unique. MIT to the rescue again!

Person 1: What's the integral of 1/cabin with respect to cabin?
Person 2: A log cabin.
Person 1: No, a houseboat; you forgot to add the C!


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We have light homework tonight - IW 3 consists of only 8 problems! However, we do have a quiz next class covering IW's 1, 2 and 3, so if you haven't done 1 and 2 yet, get on them!

To wrap up class, we began an explanation of the Mean Value Theorem which we will have to finish for homework. This theorem, like this intermediate value theorem and extreme value theorem will be useful for reasons to be explained in the examination sheet we have for homework. While at the moment we aren't linking derivatives and integrals, we will be doing so in the future. When we get there, this theorem will be invaluable. 

Let's look at the mean value theorem from a simplified perspective - say you're driving to Augusta from Camden, and you want to average a speed of 50mph for some reason only known to math problem creators. On the trip, at some point your instantaneous rate of speed must hit 50 mph. You may travel half the trip at 1 mph, but in the middle of your ride your speed must increase at an infinitely quick rate so that you can cover the other half at 99. Even when you jump from 1 to 99, your speed passes through 50mph at some point in time. If you're doing a more modest 40mph for half the trip, you must speed up so that your speedometer passes through 50 to reach 60 for the second half of the trip to average out at 50mph. 

Applied to a more abstract mathematical format, somewhere on the interval being looked at there will be a point c where the slope of the secant line of the function between two points and the tangent at said point c are equal. Confusing, right? Lets look at an example like the one on the exploration. 


Here we see the secant line in red connecting the two endpoints of the segment we are studying - call it [a,b] - and the tan line in blue which is parallel to the secant when taken at some point c. OB seems interested - but why is that? As always, Wikipedia has all the answers to life. But why is this so? The exploration will show us.

Doesn't this remind you of something? Something that starts with an I? Something that starts with an Intermediate? Something that sounds like... shmitermediate shmalue shmeorem? Thats right! It does look like the Intermediate Value Theorem! You're so smart! 


Looking at example 1 on the exploration quickly, we notice that there is indeed a point on the interval examined with has a tangent parallel to the secant line drawn between the two endpoints. It seems like the mean value theorem may well hold up. What does Gabe's head have to say about question 2?


Yes Gabe, I agree! It is interesting that its possible for there to be more than one point on a function which has a tangent parallel to a secant drawn between two endpoints of a section.

Alright everyone, make sure that you have the IW's finished tonight as well as the Mean Value Theorem sheet; rest up for the quiz tomorrow also, and don't let those mean values get you down.